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GEOG 115, Exam #2 Study Guide
Water in the atmosphere
1.
Winter fog in the Central Valley region of California is mainly due to:
a. adiabatic cooling
b. radiational cooling
c. advection of cold air
d. uplift
e. evaporation of water from rivers
2.
Which of the following is not a favorable condition for the formation of radiation fog?
a. strong radiational cooling
b. formation of surface-based inversion
c.high humidity near surface
d. cloudy sky
e. calm condition or light wind
3.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the actual amount of water vapor in the air?
a. air temperature
b. saturation vapor pressure
c. relative humidity
d. dew point temperature
e. mixing ratio
4.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a. condensation takes place when the dew point temperature is reached
b. the relative humidity is less than 100% when the dew point is reached
c. the dew point is the temperature to which air temperature must be cooled at constant pressure to
reach saturation
d. frost point is the temperature to which air must be cooled at a constant pressure to cause frost to
form
5.
Frost forms when:
a. objects on the ground cool below the dew point temperature
b. the dew point is 32o F or below
c. water vapor changes into ice without first becoming a liquid
d. all of the above
6.
Exhaled breath from your mouth can condense when:
a. it is very cold.
b. it is very warm and humid.
c. the addition of water vapor from your breath causes the air’s relative humidity to exceed 100%.
d. all of the above
7. We rarely observe dew or frost under trees because:
a. Branches and leaves prevent dew from falling onto the ground below the trees.
b. Trees reflect infrared radiation emitted by the ground, keeping the surface warmer and
above the dew point.
c. Trees emit infrared radiation, some of which is absorbed by the ground, keeping the
surface warmer and above the dew point.
d. A temperature inversion typically forms under trees.
e. Trees absorb water vapor and reduce the relative humidity.
8. With which set of conditions below would you expect wet laundry hanging outdoors on a clothesline
to dry most quickly?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8.
Air Temperature (oF)
60
40
60
40
60
Relative Humidity
75%
75%
50%
50%
75%
Wind Speed
20 MPH
20
20
10
10
Advection fog is often observed along the Pacific coast during summer, as westerly winds carry
moist air toward the shore. The fog forms because the surface water near the coast is ____ the
surface water farther offshore.
a. much colder than
b. much warmer than
c. the same temperature as
d. richer in nutrients than
e. richer in wildlife than
10. Radiation fog typically forms on
a. clear, calm days.
b. clear, windy days.
c. clear, calm nights.
d. clear, windy nights.
e. any day and in any conditions.
11.
Advection fog is often observed along the Pacific coast during summer, as westerly winds carry
moist air toward the shore. The fog forms because the surface water near the coast is ____ the
surface water farther offshore.
a. much colder than
b. much warmer than
c. the same temperature as
d. richer in nutrients than
e. richer in wildlife than
12.
Dew is most likely to form on
a. clear, calm nights.
b. cloudy, calm nights.
c. clear, windy nights.
d. cloudy, windy nights.
e. rainy nights.
13.
The cooling of the ground to produce dew is mainly the result of
a. conduction.
b. radiational cooling.
c. cooling due to the release of latent heat.
d. advection.
e. condensation.
14.
When radiation fog “burns off”, the fog tends to dissipate
a. from the bottom up.
b. from the top down.
c. starting at the middle and working both upward and downward.
d. laterally.
e. in random directions.
15.
Radiation fog forms best on a
a. clear winter night with a slight breeze.
b. cloudy winter night with a strong breeze.
c. clear summer night with a strong breeze.
d. cloudy summer night with a slight breeze.
e. cloudy winter night with a slight breeze.
16.
On a cold, winter morning, the most likely place for radiation fog to form is
a. at the top of a hill or mountain.
b. in a valley.
c. along the side of a hill.
d. over a body of water.
e. in a city.
17. The fog that forms along the Pacific coastline of North America is mainly of which type?
a. radiation fog
b. upslope fog
c. frontal fog
d. advection fog
e. steam fog
18.
If fog is forming in Denver, Colorado (located on the eastern side of the Rocky Mountains), and
the wind is blowing from the east, then the fog is most likely
a. advection fog.
b. frontal fog.
c. upslope fog.
d. radiation fog.
e. downslope fog.
19.
Fog that most often forms as warm rain falls into a cold layer of surface air is called
a. radiation fog.
b. evaporation (mixing) or frontal fog.
c. advection fog.
d. upslope fog.
e. giant fog.
20. What will occur if a glass of water at a stable temperature is surrounded by saturated air?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The level of the water in the glass would slowly decrease.
The water’s temperature would slowly increase.
The level of the water in the glass would not change.
The water’s temperature would slowly decrease.
The level of the water in the glass would slowly increase.
21. What happens when air is saturated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The air temperature equals the dew point temperature.
The relative humidity is nonetheless less than 100 percent.
The air temperature is higher than the dew point temperature.
An increase in temperature will cause condensation to occur.
The temperature increases.
22. The percentage of water vapor present in the air compared to that required for saturation is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
mixing ratio.
absolute humidity.
dew point.
relative humidity.
specific humidity.
23. At what time of day is the relative humidity normally at a minimum?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
when the air temperature is highest
just before sunrise
about midnight
when the air temperature is lowest
at sunset
24. The time of day when the relative humidity reaches a maximum value is usually
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
25.
at the time when the air temperature is highest.
in the middle of the afternoon.
at the time when the air temperature is lowest.
just before sunrise.
about midnight.
When both the air temperature and relative humidity are high and the air is nearly saturated with
water vapor, body moisture does not readily ____.
a. transpire
b. perspire
c. saturate
d. condense
e. evaporate
26.
The heat index (HI) is used by the National Weather Service, and combines ____ with ____ to
determine an apparent temperature.
a. dew point temperature; mixing ratio
b. mixing ratio; saturation vapor pressure
c. actual vapor pressure; specific humidity
d. air temperature; relative humidity
e. air temperature; specific humidity
Questions 27 through 29 refer to the temperature and dew point data in the following cities:
City
City A
City B
City C
City D
Air Temperature (o F)
95
10
30
50
27.
Which city has the highest relative humidity?
a. City A
b. City B
c. City C
d. City D
28.
Which city has the least amount of water vapor in the air?
a. City A
b. City B
c. City C
d. City D
29.
Which city has the greatest amount of water vapor in the air?
a. City A
b. City B
c. City C
d. City D
Dew Point (oF)
76
10
21
42
Stability and Cloud
1. Driving along Shaw by Chestnut Avenue on a warm summer afternoon, what type of smoke
plume you expect to see from the Dog House Grill smokestack?
a. Fanning; b. Fumigation; (c). Conning; (d) Looping; (e) Lofting
1. Under what atmospheric condition is fog most often formed in the San Joaquin Valley?
(a) Neutral stability; (b) conditionally unstable stability; (c) Unstable stability; (d) Stable stability
2. What type of lapse rate can be determined from temperature measurements made from an aircraft
ascending from the surface to a height of 3,000 m?
(a). dry adiabatic lapse rate; (b). environmental lapse rate ; (c). moist adiabatic lapse rate;
(d). inversion lapse rate
3. The San Joaquin Air Pollution Control District (SJAPCD) does not permit burning when it is
determined the stability in the lower atmosphere is ______________
(a) Stable; (b) unstable; (c) neutral; (d) conditionally unstable; (e) none of the above
4. Which atmospheric stability condition is more likely to increase pollution level in Fresno?
a. unstable atmosphere; b. conditionally unstable atmosphere; c. stable atmosphere
d. neutral atmosphere
5. Which stability condition is more likely to enhance dispersion of pollutants in Fresno?
a. unstable atmosphere; b. conditionally unstable atmosphere; c. stable atmosphere
d. neutral atmosphere
6.
If the temperature at Fresno airport is 100 oF and the environmental lapse rate is 10oF per 1000
feet, what is the temperature at the foothill with elevation of 1000 feet
(a) 78 oF; (b) 70 oF; (c) 84 oF; (d) 90 oF; (e) none of the above
7. When the environmental lapse rate decreases more rapidly with height than the dry adiabatic
rate, the atmosphere is:
a. absolutely stable.
b. absolutely unstable.
c. convectively unstable.
d. conditionally unstable.
8. An inversion represents an extremely stable atmosphere because air that rises into the
inversion will eventually become __________ and __________ dense than the surrounding air.
a. warmer, less
b. warmer, more
c. colder, less
d. colder, more
9.
Which set of conditions, working together, will make the atmosphere the most stable?
a. cool the surface and warm the air aloft
b. cool the surface and cool the air aloft
c. warm the surface and cool the air aloft
d. warm the surface and warm the air aloft
Question 10 refer to the diagram above.
10. Temperatures in a rising parcel of air are shown at various altitudes above. The data indicate that a
cloud must have formed at _____.
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 3 km
d. 4 km
11.
Indicate which mechanism below will not lead to cloud formation
a. surface heating and free convection
b. uplift along topography
c. convergence of surface air
d. divergence of surface air
12.
The difference between the “moist” and “dry” adiabatic rates is due to:
a. the fact that saturated air is always unstable.
b. the fact that an unsaturated air parcel expands more rapidly than a saturated air parcel.
c. the fact that moist air weighs less than dry air.
d. the fact that latent heat is released by a rising parcel of saturated air.
13.
Subsidence inversions are best developed with ____ pressure areas because of the ____
air motions associated with them.
a. high; rising
b. high; sinking
c. low; rising
d. low; sinking
14. If the environmental lapse rate is 5o C per 1,000 m and the temperature at the earth’s surface is 25o
C, then the air temperature at 2,000 m above the ground is
(a) 20 oC; (b) 25 oC; (c) 15 oC; (d) 30 oC
15. A neutral stability occurs in the atmosphere when
a. environmental lapse rate is greater than dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than environmental lapse rate
c. moist adiabatic lapse rate is less than environmental lapse rate.
d. dry adiabatic lapse rate equal environmental lapse rate.
e. none of the above
16. If an air parcel is lifted, it will first form clouds at the ________ and become buoyant (unstable) at
the _________.
(a) level of free convection; tropopause
(b) lifting condensation level; tropopause
(c) level of free convection; lifting condensation level
(d) lifting condensation level; level of free convection
(e) lifting condensation level; level of explosive growth
17. The atmosphere is likely to be most stable:
a. Early in the morning when surface temperatures are coldest.
b. At noon when the environmental lapse rate reverses.
c. Around 2:00 p.m. when insolation is strongest.
d. Late in the afternoon when temperatures are warmest.
e. Whenever surface pressure is lowest
18. When a convective cloud forms (for example, a cumulus), the cloud base is:
a. Where the temperature of the rising air drops below 0°C.
b. Where the dry adiabatic lapse rate becomes equal to the moist adiabatic lapse rate.
c. Where the rising air reaches the inversion layer.
d. Where the temperature of the rising air decreases adiabatically to the dew point.
e. Where pressure of the rising air becomes equal to the water vapor pressure
19 A knowledge of air stability is important because it determines
a. the direction of movement of storms.
b. the vertical motion of air.
c. the movement of high pressure areas.
d. seasonal weather patterns.
e. the movement of low pressure systems.
20. In a conditionally unstable atmosphere, the environmental lapse rate will be ____ the moist adiabatic
rate and ____ the dry adiabatic rate.
a. greater than; less than
b. greater than; greater than
c. less than; greater than
d. less than; less than
e. the same as; the same as
21. The best time of day for a farmer to burn agricultural debris for least polluted conditions is
a. first thing in the morning
b. at noon.
c. at sunset.
d. during the night.
e. during the afternoon.
22. Coning plume occurs under which conditions?
a. Unstable
b. Stable
c. Neutral
d. Inversion
23. Which of the following plumes is worst for the dispersion of pollutants?
a. Conning
b. Fanning
c. Lofting
d. Fumigating
Precipitation
1.
Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of:
a. water droplets.
b. water vapor.
c. ice particles.
d. salt aerosols.
2.
An anvil-shaped top is most often associated with:
a. cumulonimbus.
b. cumulus congestus.
c. altocumulus.
d. cumulus humilis.
3.
Middle level clouds include?
a. stratus
b. cumulus
c. stratocumulus
d. altocumulus
e. cumulonimbus
4.
An example of upper level clouds is
a. stratus
b. cumulus
c. stratocumulus
d. altocumulus
e. cirrus
5.
Condensation nuclei are important in the atmosphere because
a. they provide most of the minerals found in water.
b. they make it easier for condensation to occur in the atmosphere.
c. they are the sole producers of smog.
d. they filter out sunlight.
e. they provide the only means we have of tracking wind motions.
6.
Cloud droplets will remain suspended in air as long as
a. their diameters are less than 0.02 mm
b. the updraft speed is larger than the terminal velocity
c. the drag force is greater than the gravitational force
d. all of the above
7.
Which statement(s) about supercooled droplet is (are) correct?
a. they are also called sleet
b. they have temperatures below 0C but are still liquid.
c. they have temperatures above 0C but are entirely ice.
d. they never exist naturally in the atmosphere because water freezes at 0C.
e. (a) and (c) are both correct.
8.
The growth of a precipitation particle by the collision of an ice crystal (or snowflake) with a
supercooled liquid droplet is called:
a. accretion
b. spontaneous nucleation
c. condensation
d. deposition
9.
In the winter you read in the newspaper that a large section of the Midwest is without power due
to downed power line. Which form of precipitation would most likely produce this situation?
a. snow
b. hail
c. freezing rain
d. sleet
e. rain
10.
Hailstones that form via the dry growth regime typically have what characteristic?
a. they have smooth surfaces.
b. they are opaque or milky white.
c. they are solid ice with no air bubbles.
d. the surface temperature of the hailstone is above 0C.
11.
Hailstones that form via the wet growth regime typically have what characteristic?
a. they are opaque or milky white.
b. they are at least one inch in diameter.
c. they have tiny air bubbles trapped inside the hailstone.
d. the surface temperature of the hailstone is at 0C.
12.
What causes the milky white appearance of some hailstones?
a. air bubbles trapped in the hailstone
b. above normal atmospheric pressure
c. pollution trapped in the thunderstorm cloud
d. snowflakes trapped during hailstone growth
13.
Hail is usually associated with what cloud?
a. stratus
b. cumulus
c. stratocumulus
d. altocumulus
e. cumulonimbus
14.
Which season’s precipitation is the key to drought in the western United States?
a. winte
b. spring
c. summer
d. autumn
15.
If you become stranded in your car during a blizzard, which of the following is your best
course of action?
a. Call for help if you have a cell phone, light a candle and wait.
b. Run the engine so that the car’s heater can keep you warm.
c. Write your final will and testament before your fingers freeze.
d. Get out of your car immediately and walk to the nearest house.
e. Get out of your car, light danger flares at distances of 50 and 100 yards away to signal for
help, and return to your car.
16.
Flooding that occurs with little or no warning
a. coastal flooding
b. flash flooding
c. inland flooding
d. none of the above
18.
In a typical advancing winter storm, which of the following sequences of precipitation types is
most likely to occur?
a. rain, freezing rain, snow, sleet
b. rain, sleet, freezing rain, snow
c. freezing rain, rain, sleet, snow
d. rain, freezing rain, sleet, snow
18.
After a rainstorm, visibility typically:
a. deteriorates.
b. is unaffected.
c. improves.
d. none of the above
19.
Large raindrops fall __________ than smaller raindrops, and have a __________ terminal
velocity than small raindrops.
a. faster, lesser
b. faster, greater
c. slower, lesser
d. slower, greater
20.
What is the term used to describe the stage of a drought when the moisture shortage is
sufficiently large that it affects people?
(a) agricultural
(b) hydrological
(c) socioeconomic
(d) meteorological or climatological
21
An unusually long period during which precipitation is below normal for a particular area is
referred to as what type of drought?
(a) agricultural; (b) hydrological; (c) socioeconomic; (d) meteorological or climatological
22.
A period of deficient moisture in the soil layers from which crops and other plants
normally draw their water is termed what type of drought?
(a) agricultural
(b) hydrological
(c) socioeconomic
(d) meteorological or climatological
23.
Which two clouds can produce precipitation?
a. cumulonimbus and stratocumulus
b. nimbostratus and altostratus
c. nimbostratus and cirrus
d. cumulonimbus and nimbostratus
e. cirrus and stratocumulus
24.
Which cloud type is composed of ice crystals and can cause a halo to form around the sun or moon?
a. altostratus
b. stratus
c. nimbostratus
d. cirrostratus
e. angelitus
Wind, Forces and Balances
1.
Which of these forces does not control the wind?
a. Gravitational force
b. Coriolis force
c. Pressure gradient force
d. Frictional force
e. electrostatic force
2.
Which of the following is not true about the Pressure Gradient Force?
a. it is directed from high to low pressure
b. it is responsible for triggering the initial movement of air
c. it is always perpendicular to the isobars
d. it is strongest where isobars are closer together
e. it is zero at the equator
3.
Which statement is false?
a. Air initially moves horizontally in response to the pressure gradient force.
b. The frictional force is directed opposite the direction of air motion.
c. The Coriolis force is directed to the right of the air motion in the Northern
Hemisphere.
d. The gravitational force is directed opposite the air motion in the Northern
Hemisphere.
4.
Air cannot be in geostrophic balance in the boundary layer because of the _______.
a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
5.
The _________ is an apparent force associated with the rotation of the earth.
a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
6.
The ___________ causes air to slow down near the surface.
a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
7.
Which of the following statements is false
a. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator
b. The Coriolis force deflects air parcels to the right in the northern hemisphere
c. The strength of the Coriolis force decreases with increasing latitude
d. The Coriolis force does …
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